Content A
1. Science of Biology
2. Nature of Molecules
3. Chemical Building Block of Life
4. Origin and Early History of Life
5. Cell Structure
PART I
I. Multiple
Choice. Choose the letter of the correct answer.
1. In the study of science
A) deductive reasoning may be used, but
inductive reasoning is preferred
B) inductive reasoning may be used, but
deductive reasoning is preferred
C) only inductive reasoning is used
D) either deductive reasoning, inductive
reasoning, or both may be used
2. A successful scientific experiment will result
only in
A) rejection of one or more hypotheses
B) proving a hypothesis
C) accepting many hypotheses
D) confirming predictions
3. The "scientific method" involves all of
the following except
A) imagination and insight
B) an educated guess
C) a rigid set of logical steps
D) a suspicion of what the truth might
be
4. Homologous structures among animals provide evidence
for evolution in that these structures are
A) different in different animals, but
are modifications of the same basic structure
B) similar in function, but of
different basic structure
C) all shown in the fossil record
D) all produced by the same gene
5. When it was shown that animals could reproduce
geometrically but didn't, Darwin concluded that
A) the mathematics was faulty
B) the study from which the conclusions
were drawn was flawed
C) they failed to reach their potential
because of the selective action of nature
D) they actually reproduce
arithmetically
6. Darwin spent 5 years sailing around the world on
the
A) H.M.S. Species
B) H.M.S. Beagle
C) H.M.S. Evolution
D) H.M.S. Tortoise
7. Darwin explained his theory of evolution in a book
called
A) On the Origin of Species
B) The Principles of Population
C) Survival of the Fittest
D) Around the World in 80 Days
8. Which of the following is not part of the
scientific process?
A) making predictions
B) asking questions
C) using creative insight
D) proving theories are true
9. The study of the way individual traits are
transmitted from one generation to the next is called
A) ecology
B) genetics
C) cell biology
D) homology
E) analogy
10. Which of the following did not help Darwin
formulate his theory of evolution?
A) fossil evidence that species had
changed over time
B) closely related species on oceanic
islands
C) belief that the earth was several
thousand years old
D) evidence of artificial selection in
domestic animals
E) all of the above did help Darwin
11. Structures that have the same evolutionary origin
even though they may now have different structures or functions are said to be
A) endemic
B) analogous
C) homologous
D) immutable
E) geometric
12. Where did Darwin observe closely related species
of finches and closely related species of tortorises?
A) The Galapagos Islands
B) Patagonia, South America
C) the Cape Verde Island
D) Australia
E) England
13. Who wrote an essay on population growth that helped
Darwin formulate his theory of evolution?
A) Charles Lyell
B) Eratosthenes
C) Alfred Russel Wallace
D) Thomas Malthus
E) Karl Popper
14. Using general principles to analyze specific
cases is called
A) deductive reasoning
B) inductive reasoning
C) natural selection
D) artificial selection
15. Which of the following pairs are analogous
structures
A) the front leg of a horse and a human
arm
B) the front leg of a frog and a bat
wing
C) the wing of a bird and a bat wing
D) the front flipper of a porpoise and a
human arm
E) the wing of a bird and a butterfly
wing
16. How old was Darwin when he began his voyage
around the world?
A) 5
B) 22
C) 30
D) 59
E) 59
17. According to the fossil record, how many times
has flight evolved among vertebrates?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
18. Of the following biological levels of
organization, which represents the smallest or lowest level?
A) organs
B) populations
C) cells
D) organisms
E) tissues
19. According to Darwin's theory of evolution
A) all individuals have an equal chance
of surviving and reproducing
B) species are immutable
C) tortoises are the modern descendents
of glyptodonts
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
20. You are conducting an experiment to test the
hypothesis that dairy cows will give more milk if they listen to classical
music while being milked. Your 20 experimental cows listen to classical music
during milking; you collect all their milk and measure how much there is. Your
20 control cows should have all experimental conditions identical to the
experimental cows except
A) they should listen to classical music
at a louder volume
B) they should listen to classical
music all the time, not just during milking
C) they should listen to a different
type of music, like heavy metal
D) they should not listen to any music
E) they should not be milked
21. Which of the following statements concerning
scientific hypotheses is false?
A) Their consequences can be tested by
different investigators.
B) They can be used to make
predictions.
C) They are not always correct.
D) They are the same as theories.
E) They are constructed based on
observations.
22. Science is based on evidence rather than
consensus.
A) True
B) False
23. Scientists seek facts, but sometimes the best
they can do are theories.
A) True
B) False
24. Homologous structures in different species may
serve different functions.
A) True
B) False
25. Prior to the 19th century, most biologists
believed that organisms living at that time were fixed entities that were
divinely created.
A) True
B) False
26. Deductive reasoning
A) is always correct
B) uses specific observations to draw
more general conclusions.
C) is rarely applied in science
D) applies general principles to predict
or explain specific results
E) determines principles from
observations
27. Which of the following is not a property of life?
A) molding or adapting to one's
environment
B) regulating materials that enter or
leave the system
C) responding to stimuli
D) maintaining a relatively constant
internal condition
E) reproducing, passing hereditary
material to the next generation
28. Evolution and natural selection are the same
thing.
A) True
B) False
29. All of the evidence gathered by Darwin to support
his theory of evolution by natural selection
A) was gathered based solely on
observations made during his trip to the Galapagos Islands
B) was first presented in a book by
Charles Lyell
C) was gathered from observations made
by Darwin and from information presented by others
D) was presented in his book Essay on
the Principle of Population
E) included an explanation of how
traits can be passed from generation to generation
PART II
1. Which of the pHs listed below represents the
strongest base?
A) 7
B) 10
C) 13
D) 15
2. Covalent bonds result from
A) the sharing of equal numbers of
electrons by two atoms
B) the exchange of equal numbers of
electrons by two atoms
C) the combination of two atoms of the
same valence
D) sharing of unequal numbers of
electrons by two atoms
3. An element having 8 protons, 8 neutrons, and 8
electrons would weigh _____ daltons.
A) 8
B) 32
C) 24
D) 16
4. If a radioactive element weighing one Kg. has a
half-life of 100 years, it will weigh _____ grams in 300 years.
A) 500
B) 300
C) 125
D) 250
5. Atomic number is equal to the number of _____ in
the nucleus of the atom.
A) electrons
B) protons
C) neutrons
D) positrons
6. Which of the following pH values represents the
greatest concentration of H+ ions?
A) 4
B) 10
C) 2
D) 7
E) 12
7. Which of the following pH values represents the
strongest acid?
A) 4
B) 10
C) 2
D) 7
E) 12
8. Of the following elements, which is the least common
in living organisms?
A) sodium
B) oxygen
C) hydrogen
D) nitrogen
E) carbon
9. In ionic bonds,
A) electrons are shared unequally
between atoms
B) electrons are shared equally between
atoms
C) neutrons are transferred between
atoms
D) protons are shared equally between
atoms
E) electrons are transferred between
atoms
10. Carbon-14 has a half-life of approximately
A) 5600 years
B) 5600 days
C) 5600 centuries
D) 600 years
E) 5000 years
11. The chemical properties of an atom are primarily
determined by the number of
A) neutrons it has in its nucleus
B) isotopes it forms
C) protons it has in its nucleus
D) energy levels it has
E) electrons it has in its outermost
energy level
12. Hydrophobic
interactions are exhibited by
A) ions
B) hydration shells
C) polar molecules
D) nonpolar molecules
E) all of the above
13. Which of the following statements about water is
false?
A) water molecules are polar
B) it takes very little heat to change
the temperature of water
C) all living organisms contain water
D) ice is less dense than liquid water
E) none; all these statements are true
14. During oxidation, molecules
A) disintegrate
B) gain neutrons
C) lose electrons
D) lose carbon
E) are converted to oxygen atoms
15. Dmitri Mendeleev
A) created the periodic table
B) discovered the first known isotopes
C) carried out the first oxidation
reaction
D) developed the pH scale
E) discovered the structure of atoms
16. The maximum number of electrons that can be held
in the K and L energy levels are
A) 2 and 4, respectively
B) 8 and 6, respectively
C) 4 and 8, respectively
D) 2 and 8, respectively
E) 4 and 16, respectively
17. Potassium has an atomic number of 19. How many
electrons are in the outermost energy level of a neutral potassium atom?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
18. Which of the following pairs list atoms with the
same chemical properties?
A) 12C and 13C
B) 8O and 16S
C) 10Ne and 18Ar
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
19. Which of the following statements about orbitals
is true?
A) All orbitals have the same shape.
B) Orbitals pinpoint the exact location
of electrons.
C) s orbitals are dumbbell-shaped
D) the K energy level contains both s
and p orbitals
E) none of the above
20. Bases
A) donate H+ ions to solutions
B) accept H+ ions from solutions
C) accept OH- from solutions
D) both b and c
21. Hydrophilic substances are ________________,
whereas hydrophobic substances are _____________.
A) water-loving; water-fearing
B) polar; non-polar
C) soluble in water; soluble in lipid
D) a-c are all are correct
E) a-c are all are incorrect
22. The strongest and most stable chemical bonds are
A) covalent bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) hydrogen bonds
D) those where free electrons are
available to form other bonds
E) polar bonds
23. Hydrogen bonds form when hydrogen in one polar
molecule is attracted to the electronegative portion of another molecule.
A) True
B) False
24. Whether an atom will form an ionic bond or a
covalent bond is primarily determined by the difference between its atomic
weight and its atomic number.
A) True
B) False
25. Hydrogen bonding between water molecules is
directly responsible for the fact that ice is less dense than water at 0 degree
C.
A) True
B) False
26. The properties of water are due to the polarity
of the water molecule.
A) True
B) False
27. Which of the following do not have the same
number of protons and neutrons?
A) Carbon-14
B) Carbon-12
C) Deuterium
D) Oxygen-16
28. Isotopes differ in
A) their number of protons
B) their number of electrons
C) their number of neutrons
D) their ions
E) their atomic numbers
29. How many electrons does an atom have if all of
its electron orbitals are full in levels K and L?
A) 4 electrons
B) 6 electrons
C) 7 electrons
D) 10 electrons
E) 12 electrons
30. Electrons farther out from the nucleus
A) are at a higher energy level than
those that are closer to the nucleus
B) absorb energy as they move closer to
the nucleus
C) are at a lower energy level than
those that are closer to the nucleus
D) both b and c
31. Which chemical bond is the strongest?
A) ionic bond
B) single covalent bond
C) double covalent bond
D) hydrogen bond
32. Two isotopes of the same element differ in their
number of
A) protons
B) neutrons
C) electrons
D) energy levels
E) bonds
33. The atomic mass of an element is determined by
its total number of
A) orbitals
B) electrons and protons
C) electrons and neutrons
D) protons and neutrons
E) nuclei
34. Consider elements with the atomic numbers listed
below. Assuming the atoms were neutral, which of them would be least chemically
reactive?
A) 1
B) 8
C) 16
D) 4
E) 10
35. The greater the energy of an electron,
A) the closer it orbits to the nucleus
B) the farther it orbits from the
nucleus
C) the greater the number of other
electrons that can share its orbital
D) the more likely it is to be
transferred rather than shared
PART III
1. If you remove all of the functional groups from an
organic molecule so that it has only carbon and hydrogen atoms, the molecule
becomes a _____ molecule.
A) carbohydrate
B) carbonyl
C) carboxyl
D) hydrocarbon
2. All of the following are true of protein
denaturation except that it
A) is a shape change
B) is always irreversible
C) may be caused by a pH change
D) could result from a temperature
change
3. There are several levels of protein structure, the
most complex of which is
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
4. Nucleic acids are chains of 5-carbon sugars linked
by ____ bonds with an organic base protruding from each sugar.
A) amino
B) phosphodiester
C) carboxyl
D) phosphate
5. With respect to galactose, glucose is
A) a stereoisomer
B) a structural isomer
C) not an isomer
D) unrelated except that they are both
sugars
6. The functional group - NH2 is a(n)
A) carboxyl group
B) amino group
C) hydroxyl group
D) phosphate group
E) carbonyl group
7. Which of the following is not a lipid?
A) chitin
B) terpenes
C) steroids
D) prostaglandins
E) unsaturated fat
8. Glucose is a
A) protein
B) disaccharide
C) nucleic acid
D) monosaccharide
E) starch
9. Double helix describes the structure of a molecule
of
A) protein
B) disaccharide
C) starch
D) monosaccharide
E) DNA
10. Triacylglycerol contains fatty acids and
A) glucose
B) glycogen
C) glycerol
D) guanine
E) an amino group
11. Animals store glucose in the form of
A) amylose
B) glycogen
C) glycerol
D) guanine
E) cellulose
12. What is the yield of chemical energy, on average,
for every gram of carbohydrate and every gram of fat that is utilized?
A) 4 kcal each
B) 9 kcal each
C) 4 kcal and 9 kcal, respectively
D) 9 kcal and 4 kcal, respectively
E) 40 kcal and 90 kcal, respectively
13. In the formation of a macromolecule, what type of
bond would join two amino acid subunits?
A) ionic bond
B) phosphodiester bond
C) hydrogen bond
D) peptide bond
14. In the formation of a macromolecule, what type of
reaction would join two subunits together?
A) hydrophobic reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) dehydration reaction
D) denaturation reaction
15. The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is
called the
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
16. The globular shape of a protein is called the
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
17. In a DNA molecule, what holds together
nitrogenous bases from the two polymer chains?
A) phosphodiester bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) covalent bonds
D) peptide bonds
E) hydrogen bonds
18. Assuming they all had the same number of carbon
atoms, which of the following has the most C-H bonds?
A) an unsaturated fat
B) a polyunsaturated fat
C) a polysaccharide
D) a saturated fat
19. Why is cellulose so difficult for most animals to
digest?
A) they don't have the proper enzyme to
break the bonds between subunits
B) cellulose is made up of chitin,
which is indigestible
C) the bonds holding cellulose subunits
together are extremely strong, stronger than in any other macromolecule
D) there are many hydrogen bonds holding
the subunits together
20. What happens during a hydrolysis reaction?
A) protein coils into its secondary
structure
B) the bond between two subunits of a
macromolecule is broken
C) saturated fats become unsaturated
D) a bond is formed between two subunits
of a macromolecule
E) water breaks ionic bonds
21. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
A) sucrose
B) maltose
C) lactose
D) amylose
E) all of the above are disaccarides
22. The general term for a large molecule made up of
many similar subunits is
A) polymer
B) functional group
C) peptide
D) helix
E) pectin
23. Dehydration and hydrolysis reactions involve
removing or adding _______________ to macromolecule subunits.
A) C and O
B) CH and NH2
C) C and H
D) COOH and H
E) OH and H
24. The empirical formula for carbohydrates is
A) (CHO)2
B) (CH20)n
C) 2(CHO)n
D) (C2HO)n
E) (CnHnOn)2
25. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found
in DNA but is not found in RNA?
A) adenine
B) guanine
C) cytosine
D) thymine
E) uracil
26. What type of macromolecule carries out catalysis
in biological systems?
A) proteins called enzymes
B) carbohydrates called starches
C) lipids called steroids
D) nucleic acids called DNA
E) carbohydrates called sugars
27. In nucleic acids, the purine nitrogenous bases
are
A) uracil and thymine
B) cytosine and guanine
C) thymine and cytosine
D) adenine and guanine
E) guanine and thymine
28. In proteins, elements of secondary structure
combine to form a(n)
A) domain
B) motif
C) alpha helix
D) beta sheet
E) chaperone
29. Molecules that have the same chemical formula but
have different molecular structures are called
A) isotopes
B) ions
C) structural isotopes
D) isomers
E) both a and c
30. A hydrocarbon is said to be saturated if:
A) one end of the molecule is
hydrophilic while the other end is hydrophobic.
B) it has one or more double bonds
between carbon atoms.
C) it contains more than one functional
group.
D) each internal carbon atom is
covalently bonded to two hydrogen atoms.
E) its functional groups include at
least one aromatic ring.
31. At what level(s) of protein structure would you
expect to find disulfide bridges?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) only in b and c
32. Polymerization reactions in which polysaccharides
are synthesized from monosaccharides or proteins are synthesized from amino
acids:
A) result in the formation of water.
B) are hydrolysis reactions.
C) release energy.
D) result in the formation of covalent
bonds between monomers called peptide bonds.
E) all of the above.
33
Which of the following is a characteristic of
proteins?
A) Some may enhance the rate of specific
chemical reactions.
B) They may form either long, thin
fibrous molecules or compact, rounded globular molecules.
C) They store genetic information for
cellular metabolism.
D) They form through hydrolysis
reactions.
E) a and b
34
Amino acids and proteins are ionized at typical
biological pH such that both the amino group and the carboxyl group gain
hydrogen ions to become -NH3+ and -COOH, respectively.
A) True
B) False
35
A protein with quaternary structure contains four
domains.
A) True
B) False
36. Both glycoside and peptide linkages result from
dehydration synthesis.
A) True
B) False
37. Glycogen, starch, and cellulose are all polymers
of glucose.
A) True
B) False
38. Hydrolysis of one molecule of a triglyceride to
glycerol and fatty acids yields two molecules of water.
A) True
B) False
39. Which element occurs in nucleic acids?
A) calcium
B) phosphorus
C) manganese
D) sulfur
E) iron
40. The group of molecules called nucleotides
contain:
A) phosphate groups.
B) pyrimidines.
C) purines.
D) pentose (a 5-carbon sugar).
E) all of the above.
41. Nucleotides have a nitrogenous base attached to a
sugar at the:
A) 1' carbon
B) 2' carbon
C) 3' carbon
D) 4' carbon
E) 5' carbon
42. The two strands of a DNA double helix are held
together by:
A) ionic bonds.
B) hydrogen bonds.
C) nonpolar covalent bonds.
D) polar covalent bonds.
E) hydrophobic exclusions.
43. Molecular chaperones
A) are found in the nucleus and aid in
folding of DNA
B) degrade proteins that have folded
incorrectly
C) help new proteins fold correctly and
repair incorrectly folded proteins
D) are only present in cells that are
exposed to high temperatures
E) work through hydrophobic
interactions
PART IV
1. The site of life's origin is
A) the ocean's edge
B) unknown
C) under frozen oceans
D) near deep-sea vents
2. The earliest cellular life forms appear to have been
A) viruses
B) one-celled plants
C) one-celled animals
D) bacteria
3. Life on earth is carbon based. Similar molecules could be formed
with
A) potassium
B) aluminum
C) iron
D) silicon
4. Scientists generally agree that the first molecules formed as
life evolved were
A) proteins
B) RNA
C) peptides and nucleic acids
D) none of the above
5. Of the following, ____ was not contained in the Miller-Urey
original mixture.
A) water
B) nitrogen
C) hydrogen
D) phosphorus
6. Which of the following organisms alive today is likely to be most
similar to the first life forms that evolved on the earth?
A) methane-producing bacteria
B) cyanobacteria
C) algae
D) dinosaurs
E) humans
7.Which of the following gases is least likely to have existed in
the early atmosphere of the earth?
A) NH3
B) CO2
C) N2
D) H2O
E) O2
8. How old is the earth?
A) 4.6 billion years old
B) 3.5 billion years old
C) 2.5 billion years old
D) 1.5 billion years old
E) 0.5 billion years old
9. How long did the earth exist before life appeared on it?
A) 4.5 billion years
B) 2.7 billion years
C) 1 billion years
D) 1 million years
E) 3 thousand years
10. Which of the following was not a source of energy on the early
earth?
A) lightning
B) ozone
C) ultraviolet radiation
D) volcanic eruptions
E) all of the above were a source of
energy
11. How long have bacteria lived on the earth?
A) 4.5 billion years
B) 3.5 billion years
C) 2.5 billion years
D) 1.5 billion years
12. Within our own solar system, the most likely candidate for
having life on it is
A) our moon
B) Jupiter
C) Venus
D) the sun
E) Europa, a moon of Jupiter
13. The oldest fossils found so far date back to the
A) Cambrian Period
B) Archean Era
C) Phanerozoic Era
D) Proterozoic Era
14. Multicellular fossils appear at the beginning of the
A) Proterozoic Era
B) Precambrian Period
C) Archean Era
D) Phanerozoic Era
E) Cambrian Period
15. Which of the following traits evolved last (i.e., most
recently)?
A) prokaryotic cells
B) eukaryotic cells
C) multicellularity
D) photosynthesis
E) heredity
16. Approximately what percentage of today's atmosphere is oxygen?
A) 21%
B) 73%
C) 1%
D) 50%
E) 13%
17. What gas in today's atmosphere shields us from ultraviolet
radiation?
A) ozone
B) nitrogen
C) oxygen
D) carbon dioxide
E) carbon monoxide
18. Miller and Urey's experiments proved that
A) life evolved on earth from inanimate
chemicals
B) coacervates were the first type of
protocells
C) complex organic molecules can form
spontaneously under conditions that probably existed on the early earth
D) RNA can act as an enzyme and assemble
new RNA molecules from RNA templates
E) bacteria were the first type of
living organism to appear on the earth
19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of all living
organisms?
A) reproduction
B) heredity
C) metabolism
D) movement from place to place
E) all of the above are characteristics
of all living organisms
20. Which of the following is not found in a lipid coacervate
droplet or a proteinoid microsphere?
A) the ability to grow
B) a nucleus
C) a two-layer boundary
D) division by pinching in two
E) the ability to carry out chemical
reactions
21. The Miller-Urey experiments yielded
A) urea
B) hydrogen cyanide
C) amino acids
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
22. What did Miller and Urey use as a source of energy in their
experiments?
A) actual lightning
B) UV light
C) an electrical spark
D) radioactivity
E) volcanoes
23. The oxygen that is present in our atmosphere comes primarily
from the
A) eruption of volcanoes
B) breakdown of ozone
C) breathing of animals
D) photosynthesis of plants, algae, and
bacteria
E) none of the above
24. All of the following have been proposed as a type of protocell
except
A) coacervates
B) microspheres
C) endosymbionts
D) micelles
E) protobionts
25. According to the scientific theory of the origin of life on
earth, life arose spontaneously from inanimate chemicals. Do scientists think
this process is still going on on our planet today?
A) yes, it probably is
B) no, because conditions on earth have
changed and are no longer conducive to spontaneous evolution of life
26. Which of the following criteria is necessary and sufficient by
itself to define life?
A) movement
B) sensitivity
C) complexity
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
27. Which of the following possible explanations of the origin of
life on earth allows testable hypotheses to be constructed?
A) evolution
B) spontaneous origin
C) extraterrestrial origin
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
28. The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated
A) how RNA could have been the first
organic molecule
B) that simple molecules could not have
evolved spontaneously
C) the kinds of molecules that could
have been produced on the early earth
D) that oxygen was required for the
formation of molecules on early earth
E) the formation of the first cells
29. What molecule produced in experiments performed by others (using
Miller-Urey's model) is key to explaining the evolution of the hereditary
molecules (DNA and RNA)?
A) hydrogen gas
B) oxygen
C) proline
D) aspartic acid
E) adenine
30. Evidence indicates that microfossils already existed at least:
A) 4.5 billion years ago.
B) 3.5 billion years ago.
C) 1.3 billion years ago.
D) 1 million years ago
E) 6000 years ago
31. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the first
cells?
A) heterotroph
B) single-celled
C) genome composed of RNA
D) anaerobic
E) prokaryotic
32. Microfossils of the earliest organisms indicate that they
resemble the present day spirochetes.
A) True
B) False
33. The early earth was a harsh environment and present day
organisms that could possibly have survived that type of environment are
A) eukaryotic organisms
B) archeabacteria
C) early plants called blue-green algae
D) protobionts
E) eubacteria
34. Microfossils found in rocks that date to be about 1.5 billion
years old
A) are believed to be fossils from Mars
meteorites that fell to earth
B) look very similar to present day
cyanobacteria
C) are larger organisms compared to
earlier microfossils
D) are simple in structure with no
internal membranes
E) were originally thought to be the
first eukaryotic cells but this has since been disproved
35. The endosymbiotic theory explains
A) the origin of all organelles in
eukaryotic cells
B) how bacterial cells can invade
eukaryotic cells and cause disease
C) how mitochondria and chloroplasts
originated from free-living cells
D) how eukaryotic cells consume food
E) none of the above
36. Multicellularity arose only once in earth's history but this
line branched out 4 times.
A) True
B) False
37. Living organisms are classified into 6 different kingdoms.
However, these kingdoms are not static and will change in the future.
A) True
B) False
PART V
1. The arrangement of microtubules in eukaryotic
flagella is referred to as
A) undulating
B) basal
C) 9+2
D) ciliary
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
prokaryotes?
A) DNA
B) cell membrane
C) cell wall
D) endoplasmic reticulum
3. The term "nuclear envelope" is more
correct than the term "nuclear membrane" because
A) the enclosure has pores which
membranes do not
B) the enclosure is made up of two
membranes
C) the chemical composition is
inconsistent with cellular membranes
D) None of the above. The two terms are
perfect synonyms.
4. Oxidative metabolism is carried out ____ of
mitochondria.
A) in the intermembrane space
B) on the surface of the inner membrane
C) in the inside of the outer membrane
D) in the matrix
5. Ribosomes are made up of ____ subunits.
A) 0 (They are whole.)
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
6. Proteins synthesized by the rough ER are
A) for internal storage
B) to build more membranes in the cell
C) to digest food in lysosomes
D) for internal regulation
E) exported from the cell
7. Plants differ from animals in that plants have
A) an endoplasmic reticulum
B) a central vacuole
C) Golgi complexes
D) vesicles
E) organelles
8. Passage through pores in the nuclear envelope is
restricted primarily to
A) proteins, RNA, and protein-RNA
complexes
B) lipids and glycolipids
C) DNA and RNA
D) RNA and protein-carbohydrate
complexes
E) marker proteins for the plasma
membrane
9. In bacteria, some of the functions of eukaryotic
cells are performed by
A) vesicles
B) lysosomes
C) mitochondria
D) nucleoli
E) the plasma membrane
10. Glycoproteins and glycolipids assembled in Golgi
bodies are packaged for distribution in
A) cisternae
B) lysosomes
C) peroxisomes
D) liposomes
E) glyoxysomes
11. Within chloroplasts, light is captured by
A) grana within cisternae
B) thylakoids within grana
C) cisternae within grana
D) grana within thylakoids
E) none of the above
12. The rough ER is so named because it has an
abundance of _______________ on it.
A) mitochondria
B) lysosomes
C) Golgi bodies
D) ribosomes
E) vesicles
13. With which of the following are basal bodies not associated?
A) animal cells
B) centrioles
C) plant cells
D) tubulin
E) microtubules
14. Depolymerization of microtubules is inhibited by
A) kinesin
B) dyneins
C) actin
D) guanosine triphosphate
E) vimentin
15. Bacteria may be propelled by
A) rotating thread-like flagellum
B) cilia
C) undulating 9+2 type flagellum
D) gel-sol changes in the cytoplasm
E) an undulating thread-like flagellum
16. The bacterial cell wall is composed of
A) a phospholipid matrix
B) a lipoprotein
C) a polymer of sugars
D) chitin
E) a structural protein
17. Unlike those of prokaryotes, eukaryotic cell
walls are composed of
A) a carbohydrate matrix cross-linked by
short polypeptides
B) glycolipids and protein fibers
C) cellulose fibers embedded in a
matrix
D) chitin
E) proteins and histones
18. A gram-negative bacterium is enclosed by
A) a single thick wall
B) a single thin wall
C) a double thick wall
D) a double thin wall
E) no wall, just a plasma membrane
19. The cytoplasm of a bacterium
A) is supported by the cytoskeleton
B) is supported by microtubules
C) is supported by keratin
D) has no internal support structure
E) is supported by folds in the
interstitial membrane
20. A gram-positive bacterium is stained
_______________ by the gram stain
A) pink
B) purple
C) blue
D) green
E) red
21. Clusters of rRNA where ribosomes are assembled
are called
A) nuclei
B) cisternae
C) nucleoli
D) Golgi complexes
E) centrioles
22. Mitochondrial enzymes for oxidative metabolism
are
A) on or within the surface of cristae
B) located on the outer membrane
C) in the matrix
D) floating freely in intermembrane
space
E) in mitochondrial lysosomes
23. The smooth ER is especially abundant in cells
that synthesize extensive amounts of
A) toxins
B) proteins
C) enzymes
D) lipids
E) nucleic acids
24. Enzymes embedded in the membrane of the smooth ER
A) synthesize lipids
B) may be used for detoxification
C) synthesize carbohydrates
D) mostly are active only when
associated with a membrane
E) all of the above
25. Which of the following organelles is found in
plant cells but not in animal cells?
A) ribosomes
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) mitochondria
D) peroxisomes
E) None of the above
26. Most cells are very small. A typical eukaryotic
cell, both plant and animal, will occur in which of the following size ranges?
A) 1 mm to 100 µm
B) 100 µm to 10 µm
C) 10 µm to 1 µm
D) 1 µm to 100 nm
E) 100 nm to 10 nm
27. A cell that measures 200 µm in diameter compared
to a cell that measures 20µm will have 100 times the surface area but 1000
times the volume.
A) True
B) False
28. Because they have chloroplasts for energy
production, plant cells lack mitochondria.
A) True
B) False
29. Assuming all other factors to be the same,
electron microscopes have greater resolving power than light microscopes
because.
A) the wavelength of electrons is much
longer than the wavelength of visible light
B) electron microscopes have more
lenses
C) because the beams in electron
microscopes overlap creating a clearer picture
D) because the wavelengths in visible
light are longer than with electrons
E) because electron microscopes are
compound microscopes
30. Bacterial flagella propel the cell by using
A) a whipping-like motion
B) two flagella that move in opposite
directions, like a flutter kick
C) a rotating motion
D) a flicking motion
E) none of the above
31. Which characteristic do eukaryotic and
prokaryotic flagella have in common?
A) chemical composition
B) structure
C) location in the cell
D) function
E) source of energy
32. The microtubules of cilia and flagella are
organized in a characteristic 9 + 2 pattern, and they slide past one another.
A) True
B) False
33. Proteins lacking a signal peptide sequence will
probably be secreted from the cell.
A) True
B) False
34. According to the endosymbiotic theory, the
infoldings and specializations of the plasma membrane led to the evolution of
the endomembrane system.
A) True
B) False
35. The cytoskeleton includes all of the following
except
A) microtubules
B) intermediate filaments
C) myosin filaments
D) actin filaments
E) all of the above are included
36. Ribosomes are found
A) only in the nucleus
B) in the cytoplasm
C) attached to the smooth endoplasmic
reticulum
D) only in eukaryotic cells
E) both b and c
37. The Golgi apparatus is involved in
A) transporting proteins that are to be
released from the cell
B) packaging proteins into vesicles
C) altering or modifying proteins
D) producing lysosomes
E) all of the above
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